Neuro-ophthalmology: practice question

A Ophthalmology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Ophthalmology · Neuro-ophthalmology

Sample item

What visual defect can occur with a pituitary mass compressing the optic chiasm?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Bitemporal hemianopia

The defining Neuro-ophthalmology relationship supports Bitemporal hemianopia; it is the option that directly accounts for the examination finding or clinical priority in this sample.

Option by option

  • A. Monocular central scotoma only

    Monocular central scotoma only does not explain the stated neuro-ophthalmology feature.

  • B. Bitemporal hemianopia (correct)

    Correct. Bitemporal hemianopia directly fits the key clue in the scenario.

  • C. No visual change

    No visual change is unsupported by the symptom pattern or examination result.

  • D. Homonymous quadrantanopia only

    Homonymous quadrantanopia only can be relevant elsewhere but is not the best conclusion here.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Ophthalmology questions

Questions about this Ophthalmology question

What is the answer to this Ophthalmology question?

The best answer is B, Bitemporal hemianopia. The defining Neuro-ophthalmology relationship supports Bitemporal hemianopia; it is the option that directly accounts for the examination finding or clinical priority in this sample.

Why is "Monocular central scotoma only" not the answer?

Monocular central scotoma only does not explain the stated neuro-ophthalmology feature.

Why is "No visual change" not the answer?

No visual change is unsupported by the symptom pattern or examination result.

Why is "Homonymous quadrantanopia only" not the answer?

Homonymous quadrantanopia only can be relevant elsewhere but is not the best conclusion here.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neuro-ophthalmology in Ophthalmology. The correct option holds because: Correct. Bitemporal hemianopia directly fits the key clue in the scenario.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neuro-ophthalmology?

Group the red eye by what to examine and what the pupil does. Then use the flashcards and the other Ophthalmology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.