Psychopharmacology: practice question

A Psychiatry question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Psychiatry · Psychopharmacology

Sample item

What potentially life-threatening syndrome can follow dopamine blockade with fever and rigidity?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

The decisive Psychopharmacology principle supports Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; it most directly explains the clinical description, safety priority, or appropriate intervention in the stem.

Option by option

  • A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (correct)

    Correct. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is supported by the central clue given.

  • B. Serotonin syndrome only

    Serotonin syndrome only does not match the stated psychopharmacology feature.

  • C. Panic disorder

    Panic disorder is inconsistent with the diagnosis, mechanism, or priority described.

  • D. Alcohol withdrawal

    Alcohol withdrawal may have another role but is not the best answer in this scenario.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Psychiatry questions

Questions about this Psychiatry question

What is the answer to this Psychiatry question?

The best answer is A, Neuroleptic malignant syndrome. The decisive Psychopharmacology principle supports Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; it most directly explains the clinical description, safety priority, or appropriate intervention in the stem.

Why is "Serotonin syndrome only" not the answer?

Serotonin syndrome only does not match the stated psychopharmacology feature.

Why is "Panic disorder" not the answer?

Panic disorder is inconsistent with the diagnosis, mechanism, or priority described.

Why is "Alcohol withdrawal" not the answer?

Alcohol withdrawal may have another role but is not the best answer in this scenario.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Psychopharmacology in Psychiatry. The correct option holds because: Correct. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is supported by the central clue given.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Psychopharmacology?

Learn each diagnosis by its core features and its first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other Psychiatry questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.