Dissociative disorders: practice question

A Psychiatry question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Psychiatry · Dissociative disorders

Sample item

After a traumatic event, a patient cannot recall important autobiographical details about the event, although examination and imaging show no neurological cause. Which diagnosis is most likely?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Dissociative amnesia

Dissociative amnesia is an inability to recall important autobiographical information, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature, that is inconsistent with ordinary forgetting. A neurological cause should be considered and excluded clinically.

Option by option

  • A. Malingering

    Malingering requires intentional symptom production for external incentive and cannot be assumed from inconsistency alone.

  • B. Dissociative amnesia (correct)

    Correct. Trauma-linked autobiographical memory loss without a neurological explanation is typical.

  • C. Transient global amnesia

    Transient global amnesia presents with sudden anterograde memory impairment, usually in older adults.

  • D. Major neurocognitive disorder

    Major neurocognitive disorder produces broader persistent cognitive decline and loss of independence.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Psychiatry question

What is the answer to this Psychiatry question?

The best answer is B, Dissociative amnesia. Dissociative amnesia is an inability to recall important autobiographical information, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature, that is inconsistent with ordinary forgetting.

Why is "Malingering" not the answer?

Malingering requires intentional symptom production for external incentive and cannot be assumed from inconsistency alone.

Why is "Transient global amnesia" not the answer?

Transient global amnesia presents with sudden anterograde memory impairment, usually in older adults.

Why is "Major neurocognitive disorder" not the answer?

Major neurocognitive disorder produces broader persistent cognitive decline and loss of independence.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Dissociative disorders in Psychiatry. A neurological cause should be considered and excluded clinically.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Dissociative disorders?

Learn each diagnosis by its core features and its first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other Psychiatry questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.