Gynecology: ovarian torsion: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynecology: ovarian torsion

Sample item

A patient has sudden unilateral lower-abdominal pain with vomiting and an adnexal mass. Doppler flow is present in the ovary. What is the correct interpretation?

AThe diagnosis must be appendicitisBTorsion is excluded by any flowCThe mass is certainly malignantDOvarian torsion remains possible despite preserved Doppler flow

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Ovarian torsion remains possible despite preserved Doppler flow

Ovarian torsion is a clinical and surgical emergency. Preserved arterial Doppler flow does not exclude torsion because venous obstruction may occur first and the ovary has dual blood supply.

Option by option

A. The diagnosis must be appendicitis
Appendicitis remains a differential but is not established by Doppler flow.
B. Torsion is excluded by any flow
This is a common but unsafe misconception.
C. The mass is certainly malignant
An adnexal mass can be benign and may predispose to torsion.
D. Ovarian torsion remains possible despite preserved Doppler flow (correct)
Correct. Normal or preserved flow cannot safely rule out torsion.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is D, Ovarian torsion remains possible despite preserved Doppler flow. Ovarian torsion is a clinical and surgical emergency.

Why is "The diagnosis must be appendicitis" not the answer?

Appendicitis remains a differential but is not established by Doppler flow.

Why is "Torsion is excluded by any flow" not the answer?

This is a common but unsafe misconception.

Why is "The mass is certainly malignant" not the answer?

An adnexal mass can be benign and may predispose to torsion.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynecology: ovarian torsion in OBG. Preserved arterial Doppler flow does not exclude torsion because venous obstruction may occur first and the ovary has dual blood supply.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynecology: ovarian torsion?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.