Gynecology: pelvic inflammatory disease: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynecology: pelvic inflammatory disease

Sample item

A sexually active patient has pelvic pain, fever, mucopurulent cervical discharge, and cervical motion tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease

Pelvic inflammatory disease is an ascending genital tract infection and is diagnosed clinically when pelvic pain occurs with cervical motion, uterine, or adnexal tenderness in an appropriate setting. Early treatment reduces risk of infertility and ectopic pregnancy.

Option by option

  • A. Irritable bowel syndrome

    IBS does not cause cervical motion tenderness or genital tract infection signs.

  • B. Ovarian cancer

    Ovarian cancer usually has a more insidious mass or bloating presentation.

  • C. Pelvic inflammatory disease (correct)

    Correct. Cervical motion tenderness with discharge and fever supports PID.

  • D. Endometriosis

    Endometriosis causes cyclical pain but not typically fever and purulent discharge.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is C, Pelvic inflammatory disease. Pelvic inflammatory disease is an ascending genital tract infection and is diagnosed clinically when pelvic pain occurs with cervical motion, uterine, or adnexal tenderness in an appropriate setting.

Why is "Irritable bowel syndrome" not the answer?

IBS does not cause cervical motion tenderness or genital tract infection signs.

Why is "Ovarian cancer" not the answer?

Ovarian cancer usually has a more insidious mass or bloating presentation.

Why is "Endometriosis" not the answer?

Endometriosis causes cyclical pain but not typically fever and purulent discharge.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynecology: pelvic inflammatory disease in OBG. Early treatment reduces risk of infertility and ectopic pregnancy.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynecology: pelvic inflammatory disease?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.