Gynecology: polycystic ovary syndrome: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynecology: polycystic ovary syndrome

Sample item

A patient has irregular menses, clinical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology after other causes are excluded. Which diagnosis fits best?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Polycystic ovary syndrome

Polycystic ovary syndrome is diagnosed using a combination of ovulatory dysfunction, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology after exclusion of alternative causes. Metabolic and endometrial risks also need assessment.

Option by option

  • A. Primary ovarian insufficiency

    Primary ovarian insufficiency is associated with elevated gonadotropins and low estrogen.

  • B. Polycystic ovary syndrome (correct)

    Correct. This is the characteristic diagnostic combination.

  • C. Endometrial cancer

    Endometrial cancer is not the primary explanation for this endocrine phenotype.

  • D. Hyperprolactinemia only

    Hyperprolactinemia is an alternative cause of menstrual irregularity that must be excluded.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is B, Polycystic ovary syndrome. Polycystic ovary syndrome is diagnosed using a combination of ovulatory dysfunction, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology after exclusion of alternative causes.

Why is "Primary ovarian insufficiency" not the answer?

Primary ovarian insufficiency is associated with elevated gonadotropins and low estrogen.

Why is "Endometrial cancer" not the answer?

Endometrial cancer is not the primary explanation for this endocrine phenotype.

Why is "Hyperprolactinemia only" not the answer?

Hyperprolactinemia is an alternative cause of menstrual irregularity that must be excluded.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynecology: polycystic ovary syndrome in OBG. Metabolic and endometrial risks also need assessment.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynecology: polycystic ovary syndrome?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.