Gynecology: primary amenorrhea: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynecology: primary amenorrhea

Sample item

A 16-year-old has normal breast development, absent uterus on imaging, and a short blind-ending vagina. What diagnosis is most likely?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Mullerian agenesis

Mullerian agenesis causes congenital absence of uterus and upper vagina with normal ovaries and therefore normal secondary sexual characteristics. It should be differentiated from androgen insensitivity, which has absent uterus but sparse pubic hair.

Option by option

  • A. Mullerian agenesis (correct)

    Correct. Normal breasts with absent uterus and short vagina fit Mullerian agenesis.

  • B. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

    Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism causes delayed or absent secondary sexual development.

  • C. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

    Androgen insensitivity usually has scant pubic and axillary hair and testes.

  • D. Turner syndrome

    Turner syndrome causes gonadal dysgenesis and poor breast development without treatment.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is A, Mullerian agenesis. Mullerian agenesis causes congenital absence of uterus and upper vagina with normal ovaries and therefore normal secondary sexual characteristics.

Why is "Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism" not the answer?

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism causes delayed or absent secondary sexual development.

Why is "Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome" not the answer?

Androgen insensitivity usually has scant pubic and axillary hair and testes.

Why is "Turner syndrome" not the answer?

Turner syndrome causes gonadal dysgenesis and poor breast development without treatment.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynecology: primary amenorrhea in OBG. It should be differentiated from androgen insensitivity, which has absent uterus but sparse pubic hair.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynecology: primary amenorrhea?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.