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OBG · Gynecology: premature ovarian insufficiency
Sample itemA 34-year-old has amenorrhea, hot flushes, elevated FSH on repeated testing, and low estradiol. What diagnosis is most likely?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
D. Premature ovarian insufficiency
Premature ovarian insufficiency is loss of ovarian activity before age 40, with menstrual disturbance, elevated gonadotropins, and low estrogen. It affects fertility, bone, and cardiovascular health.
Option by option
A. Polycystic ovary syndrome
PCOS usually has ongoing estrogen exposure and normal or low FSH.
B. Hyperprolactinemia only
Hyperprolactinemia suppresses gonadotropins rather than raising FSH.
C. Pregnancy
Pregnancy has different hormonal findings.
D. Premature ovarian insufficiency (correct)
Correct. High FSH and low estradiol before 40 support ovarian insufficiency.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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