Neuroanatomy: amnestic syndromes: practice question

A Anatomy question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Anatomy · Neuroanatomy: amnestic syndromes

Sample item

A chronic alcoholic recovering from Wernicke encephalopathy cannot form new memories and fills the gaps with fluent but false stories. Which structures are characteristically damaged?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Mammillary bodies and dorsomedial thalamic nucleus

Korsakoff syndrome follows thiamine deficiency, with lesions in the mammillary bodies, the dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus and periventricular grey matter, parts of the Papez circuit. The result is dense anterograde amnesia with confabulation and relatively preserved immediate recall and alertness.

Option by option

  • A. Bilateral CA1 neurons of the hippocampus

    Bilateral CA1 hippocampal loss, as in global hypoxia, causes amnesia without the typical thiamine-related pattern and confabulation.

  • B. Mammillary bodies and dorsomedial thalamic nucleus (correct)

    Mammillary body and dorsomedial thalamic damage disrupts the Papez circuit and causes Korsakoff amnesia.

  • C. Amygdala

    The amygdala is concerned with fear and emotional memory, and bilateral damage produces Kluver-Bucy syndrome.

  • D. Orbitofrontal cortex

    Orbitofrontal damage produces disinhibition and personality change, not a dense amnesia.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Anatomy question

What is the answer to this Anatomy question?

The best answer is B, Mammillary bodies and dorsomedial thalamic nucleus. Korsakoff syndrome follows thiamine deficiency, with lesions in the mammillary bodies, the dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus and periventricular grey matter, parts of the Papez circuit.

Why is "Bilateral CA1 neurons of the hippocampus" not the answer?

Bilateral CA1 hippocampal loss, as in global hypoxia, causes amnesia without the typical thiamine-related pattern and confabulation.

Why is "Amygdala" not the answer?

The amygdala is concerned with fear and emotional memory, and bilateral damage produces Kluver-Bucy syndrome.

Why is "Orbitofrontal cortex" not the answer?

Orbitofrontal damage produces disinhibition and personality change, not a dense amnesia.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neuroanatomy: amnestic syndromes in Anatomy. The result is dense anterograde amnesia with confabulation and relatively preserved immediate recall and alertness.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neuroanatomy: amnestic syndromes?

Learn every nerve by its route, its muscles and what a lesion looks like at the bedside. That one habit answers a large share of questions. Then use the flashcards and the other Anatomy questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.