Pharmacodynamics: partial agonist in dependence: practice question

A Pharmacology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pharmacology · Pharmacodynamics: partial agonist in dependence

Sample item

A man stable on methadone maintenance is given sublingual buprenorphine for a pain complaint and within an hour develops sweating, yawning, abdominal cramps and mydriasis. What is the mechanism?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. A high-affinity partial agonist displaces the full agonist from mu receptors and gives less receptor activation

Buprenorphine binds mu receptors with very high affinity but low intrinsic activity. In a patient with receptors occupied by a full agonist, it displaces methadone and the net receptor activation falls, which precipitates withdrawal. The same property makes it a ceiling-limited analgesic with a lower risk of respiratory depression.

Option by option

  • A. Buprenorphine induces CYP3A4 and rapidly lowers methadone concentration

    Enzyme induction would take days and is not the mechanism of this rapid event.

  • B. Buprenorphine acts as an inverse agonist and shuts down basal mu receptor signalling

    Buprenorphine is a partial agonist, not an inverse agonist, at the mu receptor.

  • C. A high-affinity partial agonist displaces the full agonist from mu receptors and gives less receptor activation (correct)

    Correct. Displacement of a full agonist by a partial agonist lowers net efficacy and produces withdrawal.

  • D. Buprenorphine is a kappa agonist that reverses mu-mediated effects

    Its kappa activity is antagonistic and does not account for this onset of withdrawal.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Pharmacology question

What is the answer to this Pharmacology question?

The best answer is C, A high-affinity partial agonist displaces the full agonist from mu receptors and gives less receptor activation. Buprenorphine binds mu receptors with very high affinity but low intrinsic activity.

Why is "Buprenorphine induces CYP3A4 and rapidly lowers methadone concentrati…" not the answer?

Enzyme induction would take days and is not the mechanism of this rapid event.

Why is "Buprenorphine acts as an inverse agonist and shuts down basal mu rece…" not the answer?

Buprenorphine is a partial agonist, not an inverse agonist, at the mu receptor.

Why is "Buprenorphine is a kappa agonist that reverses mu-mediated effects" not the answer?

Its kappa activity is antagonistic and does not account for this onset of withdrawal.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Pharmacodynamics: partial agonist in dependence in Pharmacology. In a patient with receptors occupied by a full agonist, it displaces methadone and the net receptor activation falls, which precipitates withdrawal. The same property makes it a ceiling-limited analgesic with a lower risk of respiratory depression.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Pharmacodynamics: partial agonist in dependence?

Learn drugs as classes, then the exception in each class that an examiner would pick. Then use the flashcards and the other Pharmacology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.