Fractures and dislocations: Gartland type II supracondylar fracture: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Fractures and dislocations: Gartland type II supracondylar fracture

Sample item

A 5-year-old falls on an outstretched hand. The lateral elbow radiograph shows an extension-type supracondylar fracture of the humerus with the distal fragment angulated backwards, but the posterior cortex is still in continuity and acts as a hinge. Which Gartland type is this?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Type II

In the Gartland classification, type I is undisplaced, type II is angulated with an intact posterior cortical hinge, and type III has no cortical contact between the fragments. Type II injuries are usually reduced closed and often pinned because they tend to slip back into extension.

Option by option

  • A. Type III

    Type III has complete displacement with no cortical contact, so there is no intact hinge.

  • B. Type II (correct)

    Correct. An angulated fracture with an intact posterior cortical hinge is type II.

  • C. Type IV

    Type IV, added in a modified scheme, has complete loss of the periosteal hinge and is unstable in both flexion and extension.

  • D. Type I

    Type I is an undisplaced or minimally displaced fracture with no angulation of the distal fragment.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is B, Type II. In the Gartland classification, type I is undisplaced, type II is angulated with an intact posterior cortical hinge, and type III has no cortical contact between the fragments.

Why is "Type III" not the answer?

Type III has complete displacement with no cortical contact, so there is no intact hinge.

Why is "Type IV" not the answer?

Type IV, added in a modified scheme, has complete loss of the periosteal hinge and is unstable in both flexion and extension.

Why is "Type I" not the answer?

Type I is an undisplaced or minimally displaced fracture with no angulation of the distal fragment.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Fractures and dislocations: Gartland type II supracondylar fracture in Orthopaedics. Type II injuries are usually reduced closed and often pinned because they tend to slip back into extension.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Fractures and dislocations: Gartland type II supracondylar fracture?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.