Bone tumours: Gorham-Stout disease: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Orthopaedics · Bone tumours: Gorham-Stout disease

Sample item

A 20-year-old has progressive painless disappearance of the humerus and scapula over two years. Radiographs show tapering of bone with no new bone formation and no soft tissue mass, and biopsy shows proliferating thin-walled vascular channels. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Gorham-Stout disease

Gorham-Stout disease, or vanishing bone disease, is a non-neoplastic condition of massive osteolysis with replacement by angiomatous or lymphatic tissue. There is no osteoblastic response and the bone seems to dissolve. Chylothorax can complicate involvement of the ribs or spine.

Option by option

  • A. Gorham-Stout disease (correct)

    Correct. Painless osteolysis with vascular proliferation and no bone reaction is Gorham-Stout disease.

  • B. Paget disease of bone

    Paget disease shows sclerosis, bone enlargement and coarse trabeculae, not disappearance of bone.

  • C. Eosinophilic granuloma

    Eosinophilic granuloma is a localised lytic lesion in a child with Langerhans cells on biopsy.

  • D. Multiple myeloma

    Myeloma produces punched-out lytic lesions with an abnormal paraprotein and marrow plasma cells.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is A, Gorham-Stout disease. Gorham-Stout disease, or vanishing bone disease, is a non-neoplastic condition of massive osteolysis with replacement by angiomatous or lymphatic tissue.

Why is "Paget disease of bone" not the answer?

Paget disease shows sclerosis, bone enlargement and coarse trabeculae, not disappearance of bone.

Why is "Eosinophilic granuloma" not the answer?

Eosinophilic granuloma is a localised lytic lesion in a child with Langerhans cells on biopsy.

Why is "Multiple myeloma" not the answer?

Myeloma produces punched-out lytic lesions with an abnormal paraprotein and marrow plasma cells.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Bone tumours: Gorham-Stout disease in Orthopaedics. There is no osteoblastic response and the bone seems to dissolve. Chylothorax can complicate involvement of the ribs or spine.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Bone tumours: Gorham-Stout disease?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.