Paediatric orthopaedics: Craig test for femoral anteversion: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Paediatric orthopaedics: Craig test for femoral anteversion

Sample item

A child lies prone with the knee flexed to 90 degrees. The examiner rotates the hip until the greater trochanter is most prominent laterally and then measures the angle of the leg from the vertical. What is being estimated?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Femoral anteversion

The Craig (Ryder) test estimates femoral anteversion clinically. When the greater trochanter is most lateral, the femoral neck is parallel to the couch, and the angle of the leg from the vertical equals the version of the neck. Excess anteversion causes in-toeing, which usually resolves with growth.

Option by option

  • A. Leg length discrepancy

    Leg length discrepancy is measured from the anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus.

  • B. Tibial torsion

    Tibial torsion is assessed with the thigh-foot angle or the transmalleolar axis.

  • C. Hip abduction contracture

    Hip abduction contracture is assessed in the supine patient with the pelvis held level.

  • D. Femoral anteversion (correct)

    Correct. Positioning the trochanter laterally and measuring the leg angle gives femoral anteversion.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is D, Femoral anteversion. The Craig (Ryder) test estimates femoral anteversion clinically.

Why is "Leg length discrepancy" not the answer?

Leg length discrepancy is measured from the anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus.

Why is "Tibial torsion" not the answer?

Tibial torsion is assessed with the thigh-foot angle or the transmalleolar axis.

Why is "Hip abduction contracture" not the answer?

Hip abduction contracture is assessed in the supine patient with the pelvis held level.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Paediatric orthopaedics: Craig test for femoral anteversion in Orthopaedics. When the greater trochanter is most lateral, the femoral neck is parallel to the couch, and the angle of the leg from the vertical equals the version of the neck. Excess anteversion causes in-toeing, which usually resolves with growth.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Paediatric orthopaedics: Craig test for femoral anteversion?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.