Bacteriology: yaws treatment: practice question

A Microbiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Microbiology · Bacteriology: yaws treatment

Sample item

A child in a remote tribal hamlet has a painless raspberry-like papillomatous lesion on the leg, and later bone pains. VDRL and TPHA are both reactive, genital examination is normal and the mother is not infected. Which treatment is recommended for cases and contacts?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. A single oral dose of azithromycin

The picture is yaws, a non-venereal treponematosis caused by Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue and spread by skin contact. Serology is indistinguishable from syphilis, and the elimination strategy uses single-dose oral azithromycin.

Option by option

  • A. Weekly benzathine penicillin for three weeks

    Weekly benzathine penicillin for three weeks is a regimen for late latent syphilis.

  • B. A single oral dose of azithromycin (correct)

    Correct. Single-dose azithromycin is the oral treatment used in yaws elimination programmes.

  • C. A single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone

    Ceftriaxone is not the standard regimen for yaws.

  • D. Oral doxycycline for 14 days

    Doxycycline for 14 days is an alternative for syphilis in penicillin allergy, not the yaws programme drug.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Microbiology question

What is the answer to this Microbiology question?

The best answer is B, A single oral dose of azithromycin. The picture is yaws, a non-venereal treponematosis caused by Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue and spread by skin contact.

Why is "Weekly benzathine penicillin for three weeks" not the answer?

Weekly benzathine penicillin for three weeks is a regimen for late latent syphilis.

Why is "A single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone" not the answer?

Ceftriaxone is not the standard regimen for yaws.

Why is "Oral doxycycline for 14 days" not the answer?

Doxycycline for 14 days is an alternative for syphilis in penicillin allergy, not the yaws programme drug.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Bacteriology: yaws treatment in Microbiology. Serology is indistinguishable from syphilis, and the elimination strategy uses single-dose oral azithromycin.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Bacteriology: yaws treatment?

Make a one-line identity card for each organism: shape and stain, defining test, toxin, disease and drug. Then use the flashcards and the other Microbiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.