Uvea: Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis management: practice question

A Ophthalmology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Ophthalmology · Uvea: Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis management

Sample item

A young adult with Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis has a white, quiet eye with a lighter iris, stellate precipitates and a cataract. Which statement about management is correct?

ASystemic immunosuppression is first-lineBAtropine is needed to prevent synechiaeCCataract surgery is contraindicatedDLong-term topical steroids are not required

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Long-term topical steroids are not required

This chronic low-grade uveitis responds poorly to steroids and does not form synechiae, so steroids are not needed unless symptomatic flare occurs. Cataract surgery gives good results, and raised pressure is the main long-term problem to treat.

Option by option

A. Systemic immunosuppression is first-line
Systemic immunosuppression is not indicated for such a mild non-synechial process.
B. Atropine is needed to prevent synechiae
Atropine is not needed because synechiae do not form in this condition.
C. Cataract surgery is contraindicated
Cataract surgery usually gives good results and is not contraindicated.
D. Long-term topical steroids are not required (correct)
Correct. The inflammation is mild, steroids add little, and long-term use risks cataract and pressure rise.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this Ophthalmology question

What is the answer to this Ophthalmology question?

The best answer is D, Long-term topical steroids are not required. This chronic low-grade uveitis responds poorly to steroids and does not form synechiae, so steroids are not needed unless symptomatic flare occurs.

Why is "Systemic immunosuppression is first-line" not the answer?

Systemic immunosuppression is not indicated for such a mild non-synechial process.

Why is "Atropine is needed to prevent synechiae" not the answer?

Atropine is not needed because synechiae do not form in this condition.

Why is "Cataract surgery is contraindicated" not the answer?

Cataract surgery usually gives good results and is not contraindicated.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Uvea: Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis management in Ophthalmology. Cataract surgery gives good results, and raised pressure is the main long-term problem to treat.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Uvea: Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis management?

Group the red eye by what to examine and what the pupil does. Then use the flashcards and the other Ophthalmology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.