Bone tumours: complication of osteochondroma: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Bone tumours: complication of osteochondroma

Sample item

A 14-year-old with a hard, painless lump near the fibular neck develops foot drop and loss of sensation over the dorsum of the foot. What is the most likely mechanism?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Compression of the common peroneal nerve by an osteochondroma

An osteochondroma of the proximal fibula can compress the common peroneal nerve at the fibular neck and cause foot drop. Other complications include bursitis, fracture, and vascular compression with pseudoaneurysm around the knee. Excision relieves the compression.

Option by option

  • A. Compartment syndrome of the anterior compartment

    Compartment syndrome is acute and painful, with a tense compartment and an obvious precipitant.

  • B. L5 radiculopathy from a prolapsed disc

    A disc prolapse in a 14-year-old is rare and would not explain a focal fibular lump.

  • C. Compression of the common peroneal nerve by an osteochondroma (correct)

    Correct. The nerve winds around the fibular neck and is exposed to pressure from the bony outgrowth.

  • D. Malignant transformation with nerve infiltration

    Malignant change is uncommon in a young patient and does not usually present as foot drop.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is C, Compression of the common peroneal nerve by an osteochondroma. An osteochondroma of the proximal fibula can compress the common peroneal nerve at the fibular neck and cause foot drop.

Why is "Compartment syndrome of the anterior compartment" not the answer?

Compartment syndrome is acute and painful, with a tense compartment and an obvious precipitant.

Why is "L5 radiculopathy from a prolapsed disc" not the answer?

A disc prolapse in a 14-year-old is rare and would not explain a focal fibular lump.

Why is "Malignant transformation with nerve infiltration" not the answer?

Malignant change is uncommon in a young patient and does not usually present as foot drop.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Bone tumours: complication of osteochondroma in Orthopaedics. Other complications include bursitis, fracture, and vascular compression with pseudoaneurysm around the knee. Excision relieves the compression.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Bone tumours: complication of osteochondroma?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.