Spine: flexion teardrop fracture: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Spine: flexion teardrop fracture

Sample item

A young man dives into a shallow pool and surfaces unable to move his limbs. He has quadriplegia with loss of pain and temperature sensation but preserved joint position sense. A radiograph shows a triangular fragment from the anteroinferior corner of C5, with the vertebral body displaced backward into the canal. What is the injury?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Flexion teardrop fracture of C5

Flexion with axial load shears off the anteroinferior corner of the body and pushes the rest backward into the canal. The anterior cord is crushed, giving an anterior cord syndrome with preserved dorsal column function. The injury is highly unstable.

Option by option

  • A. Flexion teardrop fracture of C5 (correct)

    Correct. A triangular anteroinferior fragment with retropulsion of the body fits a flexion teardrop fracture.

  • B. Stable anterior wedge fracture of C5

    A simple wedge fracture does not displace the body backward and is generally stable.

  • C. Extension teardrop fracture of C2

    An extension teardrop is an avulsion at C2 and does not push the body back into the canal.

  • D. Clay-shoveler fracture of C7

    A clay-shoveler injury is a spinous process avulsion with no neurological loss.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is A, Flexion teardrop fracture of C5. Flexion with axial load shears off the anteroinferior corner of the body and pushes the rest backward into the canal.

Why is "Stable anterior wedge fracture of C5" not the answer?

A simple wedge fracture does not displace the body backward and is generally stable.

Why is "Extension teardrop fracture of C2" not the answer?

An extension teardrop is an avulsion at C2 and does not push the body back into the canal.

Why is "Clay-shoveler fracture of C7" not the answer?

A clay-shoveler injury is a spinous process avulsion with no neurological loss.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Spine: flexion teardrop fracture in Orthopaedics. The anterior cord is crushed, giving an anterior cord syndrome with preserved dorsal column function. The injury is highly unstable.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Spine: flexion teardrop fracture?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.