Metabolic bone disease: transient osteoporosis of the hip: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Metabolic bone disease: transient osteoporosis of the hip

Sample item

A woman in the third trimester of pregnancy develops sudden hip pain and a limp. A radiograph shows osteopenia of the femoral head. MRI shows diffuse marrow oedema of the head and neck with no subchondral line or collapse. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Transient osteoporosis of the hip

Transient osteoporosis of the hip presents with sudden pain, often in late pregnancy or in middle-aged men, and a diffuse marrow oedema pattern. It is self-limiting over 6 to 12 months with protected weight bearing and analgesia.

Option by option

  • A. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

    Avascular necrosis would show a double-line sign or subchondral collapse.

  • B. Septic arthritis of the hip

    Septic arthritis causes fever, effusion and high inflammatory markers.

  • C. Stress fracture of the femoral neck

    A stress fracture would appear as a distinct fracture line on MRI.

  • D. Transient osteoporosis of the hip (correct)

    Correct. Diffuse marrow oedema without a subchondral line or collapse fits transient osteoporosis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is D, Transient osteoporosis of the hip. Transient osteoporosis of the hip presents with sudden pain, often in late pregnancy or in middle-aged men, and a diffuse marrow oedema pattern.

Why is "Avascular necrosis of the femoral head" not the answer?

Avascular necrosis would show a double-line sign or subchondral collapse.

Why is "Septic arthritis of the hip" not the answer?

Septic arthritis causes fever, effusion and high inflammatory markers.

Why is "Stress fracture of the femoral neck" not the answer?

A stress fracture would appear as a distinct fracture line on MRI.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Metabolic bone disease: transient osteoporosis of the hip in Orthopaedics. It is self-limiting over 6 to 12 months with protected weight bearing and analgesia.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Metabolic bone disease: transient osteoporosis of the hip?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.