Paediatric infections: peritonsillar abscess: practice question

A Pediatrics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pediatrics · Paediatric infections: peritonsillar abscess

Sample item

A 14-year-old has fever, severe one-sided throat pain, a muffled voice, difficulty opening the mouth and a bulging soft palate with the uvula pushed to the opposite side. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Peritonsillar abscess

A peritonsillar abscess is a collection between the tonsil capsule and the pharyngeal constrictor, usually after tonsillitis in adolescents. Trismus, uvular deviation and a hot-potato voice are typical. Treatment is needle aspiration or incision and drainage with antibiotics.

Option by option

  • A. Epiglottitis

    Epiglottitis causes drooling and stridor with a normal oropharynx.

  • B. Infectious mononucleosis

    Mononucleosis causes bilateral tonsillar enlargement with adenopathy, not a unilateral abscess.

  • C. Retropharyngeal abscess

    A retropharyngeal abscess causes a posterior pharyngeal bulge and neck stiffness without uvular deviation.

  • D. Peritonsillar abscess (correct)

    Correct. Trismus with a unilateral bulging palate and deviated uvula is characteristic.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Pediatrics question

What is the answer to this Pediatrics question?

The best answer is D, Peritonsillar abscess. A peritonsillar abscess is a collection between the tonsil capsule and the pharyngeal constrictor, usually after tonsillitis in adolescents.

Why is "Epiglottitis" not the answer?

Epiglottitis causes drooling and stridor with a normal oropharynx.

Why is "Infectious mononucleosis" not the answer?

Mononucleosis causes bilateral tonsillar enlargement with adenopathy, not a unilateral abscess.

Why is "Retropharyngeal abscess" not the answer?

A retropharyngeal abscess causes a posterior pharyngeal bulge and neck stiffness without uvular deviation.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Paediatric infections: peritonsillar abscess in Pediatrics. Trismus, uvular deviation and a hot-potato voice are typical. Treatment is needle aspiration or incision and drainage with antibiotics.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Paediatric infections: peritonsillar abscess?

Memorise milestones and the vaccine schedule as tables and revise them often. Then use the flashcards and the other Pediatrics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.