Psychotic disorders: suicide risk in schizophrenia: practice question

A Psychiatry question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Psychiatry · Psychotic disorders: suicide risk in schizophrenia

Sample item

A psychiatrist ranks four patients with schizophrenia for suicide risk. Which patient is at highest risk?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Young man early in illness, good premorbid function, preserved insight, depressed

In schizophrenia the risk of suicide is highest in young men in the early years of illness who were high-functioning before onset, have insight into the loss they face, and are depressed or hopeless. Poor insight and prominent negative symptoms are comparatively less associated with suicide.

Option by option

  • A. Middle-aged man with severe negative symptoms and no depression

    Severe negative symptoms without depression carry less suicide risk than the profile with hopelessness.

  • B. Elderly woman with chronic residual illness, flat affect, no insight

    Chronic residual illness with flat affect and poor insight is a lower-risk profile.

  • C. Patient in a supervised residence, stable and adherent to treatment

    Stable, supervised and adherent patients are at lower risk because of support and treatment.

  • D. Young man early in illness, good premorbid function, preserved insight, depressed (correct)

    Correct. Young age, male sex, early illness, high premorbid function, insight and depression raise suicide risk.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Psychiatry question

What is the answer to this Psychiatry question?

The best answer is D, Young man early in illness, good premorbid function, preserved insight, depressed. In schizophrenia the risk of suicide is highest in young men in the early years of illness who were high-functioning before onset, have insight into the loss they face, and are depressed or hopeless.

Why is "Middle-aged man with severe negative symptoms and no depression" not the answer?

Severe negative symptoms without depression carry less suicide risk than the profile with hopelessness.

Why is "Elderly woman with chronic residual illness, flat affect, no insight" not the answer?

Chronic residual illness with flat affect and poor insight is a lower-risk profile.

Why is "Patient in a supervised residence, stable and adherent to treatment" not the answer?

Stable, supervised and adherent patients are at lower risk because of support and treatment.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Psychotic disorders: suicide risk in schizophrenia in Psychiatry. Poor insight and prominent negative symptoms are comparatively less associated with suicide.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Psychotic disorders: suicide risk in schizophrenia?

Learn each diagnosis by its core features and its first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other Psychiatry questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.