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Psychiatry · Substance use: seizures in alcohol withdrawal
Sample itemA 44-year-old man has a generalised tonic-clonic seizure 24 hours after stopping heavy drinking. He has no history of epilepsy and CT head is normal. Which statement about management is correct?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
C. Give benzodiazepines; no long-term anticonvulsant is needed
Alcohol withdrawal seizures arise from GABA hypofunction and glutamate excess, and respond to benzodiazepines, which also reduce progression to delirium tremens. Phenytoin is ineffective for uncomplicated withdrawal seizures, and chronic anticonvulsants are not needed if there is no underlying epilepsy.
Option by option
A. Phenytoin is the drug of choice to prevent further withdrawal seizures
Phenytoin does not prevent withdrawal seizures and is not the treatment of choice.
B. Withdrawal seizures need no treatment since they are self-limited
Untreated seizures can recur and progress to delirium tremens, so treatment is needed.
C. Give benzodiazepines; no long-term anticonvulsant is needed (correct)
Correct. Benzodiazepines treat the underlying withdrawal state and prevent recurrence.
D. Long-term valproate should be started before discharge
Long-term valproate is unnecessary because the seizure is a provoked event.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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