Organic mental disorders: semantic variant primary progressive aphasia: practice question

A Psychiatry question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Psychiatry · Organic mental disorders: semantic variant primary progressive aphasia

Sample item

A 62-year-old man has progressive loss of the meaning of words. He speaks fluently but uses vague terms, cannot name objects and asks what 'pheasant' means. Repetition is intact, and MRI shows asymmetric atrophy of the anterior temporal lobes. Which diagnosis is most likely?

ANonfluent agrammatic primary progressive aphasiaBLogopenic variant primary progressive aphasiaCWernicke aphasia from a strokeDSemantic variant primary progressive aphasia

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Semantic variant primary progressive aphasia

Semantic variant primary progressive aphasia, also called semantic dementia, is a frontotemporal dementia syndrome with loss of word and object meaning, anomia and surface dyslexia, due to anterior temporal atrophy. Speech remains fluent and repetition is preserved.

Option by option

A. Nonfluent agrammatic primary progressive aphasia
The nonfluent variant has effortful, agrammatic speech with left inferior frontal atrophy.
B. Logopenic variant primary progressive aphasia
The logopenic variant causes word-finding pauses and poor repetition and is usually due to Alzheimer pathology.
C. Wernicke aphasia from a stroke
Wernicke aphasia from a stroke is abrupt in onset, not progressive over years.
D. Semantic variant primary progressive aphasia (correct)
Correct. Fluent speech with loss of word meaning and anterior temporal atrophy is typical.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this Psychiatry question

What is the answer to this Psychiatry question?

The best answer is D, Semantic variant primary progressive aphasia. Semantic variant primary progressive aphasia, also called semantic dementia, is a frontotemporal dementia syndrome with loss of word and object meaning, anomia and surface dyslexia, due to anterior temporal atrophy.

Why is "Nonfluent agrammatic primary progressive aphasia" not the answer?

The nonfluent variant has effortful, agrammatic speech with left inferior frontal atrophy.

Why is "Logopenic variant primary progressive aphasia" not the answer?

The logopenic variant causes word-finding pauses and poor repetition and is usually due to Alzheimer pathology.

Why is "Wernicke aphasia from a stroke" not the answer?

Wernicke aphasia from a stroke is abrupt in onset, not progressive over years.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Organic mental disorders: semantic variant primary progressive aphasia in Psychiatry. Speech remains fluent and repetition is preserved.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Organic mental disorders: semantic variant primary progressive aphasia?

Learn each diagnosis by its core features and its first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other Psychiatry questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.