Medical disorders in pregnancy: venous thromboembolism: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Medical disorders in pregnancy: venous thromboembolism

Sample item

A pregnant woman at 22 weeks is diagnosed with acute deep vein thrombosis of the left leg. Which anticoagulant is preferred?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Low molecular weight heparin

LMWH does not cross the placenta and is the drug of choice for VTE in pregnancy, continued through to 6 weeks postpartum. Warfarin crosses the placenta, and direct oral anticoagulants are contraindicated. Left-sided DVT predominates because the right iliac artery compresses the left iliac vein.

Option by option

  • A. Warfarin

    Warfarin is teratogenic and carries fetal bleeding risk.

  • B. Low molecular weight heparin (correct)

    Correct. LMWH is effective and safe for the fetus.

  • C. Aspirin

    Aspirin is not treatment for acute DVT.

  • D. Rivaroxaban

    Rivaroxaban is not recommended in pregnancy.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is B, Low molecular weight heparin. LMWH does not cross the placenta and is the drug of choice for VTE in pregnancy, continued through to 6 weeks postpartum.

Why is "Warfarin" not the answer?

Warfarin is teratogenic and carries fetal bleeding risk.

Why is "Aspirin" not the answer?

Aspirin is not treatment for acute DVT.

Why is "Rivaroxaban" not the answer?

Rivaroxaban is not recommended in pregnancy.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Medical disorders in pregnancy: venous thromboembolism in OBG. Warfarin crosses the placenta, and direct oral anticoagulants are contraindicated. Left-sided DVT predominates because the right iliac artery compresses the left iliac vein.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Medical disorders in pregnancy: venous thromboembolism?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.