Dislocations: Hill-Sachs lesion: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Dislocations: Hill-Sachs lesion

Sample item

After recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations, CT shows a defect on the posterolateral humeral head. What is this lesion called?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Hill-Sachs lesion

A Hill-Sachs lesion is an impaction fracture on the posterolateral humeral head produced as it strikes the anterior glenoid rim during anterior dislocation. A large engaging lesion increases recurrence risk.

Option by option

  • A. Bankart lesion

    Bankart lesion affects the anteroinferior glenoid labrum.

  • B. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion

    A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion lies anteromedially and follows posterior dislocation.

  • C. SLAP lesion

    A SLAP lesion is a superior labral tear from anterior to posterior.

  • D. Hill-Sachs lesion (correct)

    Correct. A posterolateral head defect after anterior dislocation is a Hill-Sachs lesion.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is D, Hill-Sachs lesion. A Hill-Sachs lesion is an impaction fracture on the posterolateral humeral head produced as it strikes the anterior glenoid rim during anterior dislocation.

Why is "Bankart lesion" not the answer?

Bankart lesion affects the anteroinferior glenoid labrum.

Why is "Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion" not the answer?

A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion lies anteromedially and follows posterior dislocation.

Why is "SLAP lesion" not the answer?

A SLAP lesion is a superior labral tear from anterior to posterior.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Dislocations: Hill-Sachs lesion in Orthopaedics. A large engaging lesion increases recurrence risk.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Dislocations: Hill-Sachs lesion?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.