Fractures: Lisfranc injury: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Fractures: Lisfranc injury

Sample item

A footballer has midfoot pain and swelling after a twisting injury, and radiographs show a small avulsion between the base of the second metatarsal and the medial cuneiform. Which injury is this?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Lisfranc (tarsometatarsal) injury with the fleck sign

A Lisfranc injury disrupts the tarsometatarsal joint complex, with the Lisfranc ligament running from the medial cuneiform to the second metatarsal base. The fleck sign denotes avulsion of this ligament and indicates instability, often needing fixation.

Option by option

  • A. Talar neck fracture

    A talar neck fracture is a hindfoot injury after dorsiflexion.

  • B. Calcaneal stress fracture

    A calcaneal stress fracture is in the hindfoot.

  • C. Lisfranc (tarsometatarsal) injury with the fleck sign (correct)

    Correct. The fleck sign marks a Lisfranc ligament avulsion.

  • D. Jones fracture

    A Jones fracture is at the proximal fifth metatarsal.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is C, Lisfranc (tarsometatarsal) injury with the fleck sign. A Lisfranc injury disrupts the tarsometatarsal joint complex, with the Lisfranc ligament running from the medial cuneiform to the second metatarsal base.

Why is "Talar neck fracture" not the answer?

A talar neck fracture is a hindfoot injury after dorsiflexion.

Why is "Calcaneal stress fracture" not the answer?

A calcaneal stress fracture is in the hindfoot.

Why is "Jones fracture" not the answer?

A Jones fracture is at the proximal fifth metatarsal.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Fractures: Lisfranc injury in Orthopaedics. The fleck sign denotes avulsion of this ligament and indicates instability, often needing fixation.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Fractures: Lisfranc injury?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.