Paediatric: lateral condyle fracture: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Orthopaedics · Paediatric: lateral condyle fracture

Sample item

Why do displaced lateral condyle fractures of the humerus in children usually need open reduction and fixation?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. They are intra-articular and unstable due to pull of the common extensor origin, with risk of nonunion

The lateral condylar fragment is displaced by the pull of the forearm extensors and bathed in synovial fluid, so healing is poor. Fractures displaced more than 2 mm need anatomical reduction and fixation with pins to avoid nonunion, valgus deformity and tardy ulnar palsy.

Option by option

  • A. They occur only in adults

    These fractures are typically seen in children aged 4 to 10 years.

  • B. They always cause arterial injury

    Arterial injury is typical of supracondylar fractures.

  • C. They are extra-articular and heal with a cast alone

    They are intra-articular and unstable when displaced.

  • D. They are intra-articular and unstable due to pull of the common extensor origin, with risk of nonunion (correct)

    Correct. Intra-articular instability and extensor pull make fixation necessary.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is D, They are intra-articular and unstable due to pull of the common extensor origin, with risk of nonunion. The lateral condylar fragment is displaced by the pull of the forearm extensors and bathed in synovial fluid, so healing is poor.

Why is "They occur only in adults" not the answer?

These fractures are typically seen in children aged 4 to 10 years.

Why is "They always cause arterial injury" not the answer?

Arterial injury is typical of supracondylar fractures.

Why is "They are extra-articular and heal with a cast alone" not the answer?

They are intra-articular and unstable when displaced.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Paediatric: lateral condyle fracture in Orthopaedics. Fractures displaced more than 2 mm need anatomical reduction and fixation with pins to avoid nonunion, valgus deformity and tardy ulnar palsy.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Paediatric: lateral condyle fracture?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.