Shoulder: rotator cuff tear: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Orthopaedics · Shoulder: rotator cuff tear

Sample item

After a fall, a 60-year-old man cannot hold his arm abducted at 90 degrees and the arm drops when lowering it. Which injury is suggested?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Full-thickness supraspinatus tear (positive drop arm sign)

The drop arm sign suggests a large rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus, and the empty can test shows weakness of abduction. Supraspinatus initiates abduction and is the most commonly torn cuff muscle, and MRI or ultrasound confirms the tear.

Option by option

  • A. Full-thickness supraspinatus tear (positive drop arm sign) (correct)

    Correct. Inability to hold the abducted arm indicates a supraspinatus tear.

  • B. Frozen shoulder

    Frozen shoulder causes stiffness and not a sudden drop.

  • C. Acromioclavicular sprain

    An AC sprain causes pain at the joint with preserved strength.

  • D. Axillary nerve neuropraxia

    Axillary nerve injury would cause deltoid weakness and loss of sensation.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is A, Full-thickness supraspinatus tear (positive drop arm sign). The drop arm sign suggests a large rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus, and the empty can test shows weakness of abduction.

Why is "Frozen shoulder" not the answer?

Frozen shoulder causes stiffness and not a sudden drop.

Why is "Acromioclavicular sprain" not the answer?

An AC sprain causes pain at the joint with preserved strength.

Why is "Axillary nerve neuropraxia" not the answer?

Axillary nerve injury would cause deltoid weakness and loss of sensation.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Shoulder: rotator cuff tear in Orthopaedics. Supraspinatus initiates abduction and is the most commonly torn cuff muscle, and MRI or ultrasound confirms the tear.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Shoulder: rotator cuff tear?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.