Infectious diseases: practice question

A General Medicine question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Medicine · Infectious diseases

Sample item

A man returning from a malaria-endemic area is drowsy and jaundiced, and his blood film shows Plasmodium falciparum. What is the preferred first-line antimalarial?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Intravenous artesunate

Impaired consciousness and jaundice with falciparum infection define severe malaria, which is a medical emergency. Parenteral artesunate is the preferred treatment because it clears parasites faster than quinine, and it is followed by a full course of an oral combination.

Option by option

  • A. Intravenous artesunate (correct)

    Correct. Intravenous artesunate is first-line for severe falciparum malaria.

  • B. Oral doxycycline alone

    Doxycycline is slow-acting and used only as an adjunct, never alone in severe disease.

  • C. Oral chloroquine

    Chloroquine is unreliable because of widespread resistance of falciparum, and oral therapy is unsuitable in a drowsy patient.

  • D. Oral primaquine alone

    Primaquine acts on liver stages and gametocytes and does not rapidly control severe asexual-stage infection.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Medicine questions

Questions about this General Medicine question

What is the answer to this General Medicine question?

The best answer is A, Intravenous artesunate. Impaired consciousness and jaundice with falciparum infection define severe malaria, which is a medical emergency.

Why is "Oral doxycycline alone" not the answer?

Doxycycline is slow-acting and used only as an adjunct, never alone in severe disease.

Why is "Oral chloroquine" not the answer?

Chloroquine is unreliable because of widespread resistance of falciparum, and oral therapy is unsuitable in a drowsy patient.

Why is "Oral primaquine alone" not the answer?

Primaquine acts on liver stages and gametocytes and does not rapidly control severe asexual-stage infection.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Infectious diseases in General Medicine. Parenteral artesunate is the preferred treatment because it clears parasites faster than quinine, and it is followed by a full course of an oral combination.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Infectious diseases?

For each disease know the classic presentation, the best test, and the first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other General Medicine questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.