Fractures and dislocations: pelvis and hip: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Orthopaedics · Fractures and dislocations: pelvis and hip

Sample item

After a road accident, a patient has pain over the hip and the radiograph shows a fracture through the floor of the acetabulum with the femoral head protruding into the pelvis. What is the injury called?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Central fracture-dislocation of the hip

A fracture of the medial wall of the acetabulum with the head driven into the pelvis is a central fracture-dislocation. It is caused by a force along the femoral neck, as from a fall on the side or a blow to the greater trochanter.

Option by option

  • A. Pipkin fracture of the femoral head

    A Pipkin fracture splits the femoral head itself, with posterior dislocation.

  • B. Posterior wall acetabular fracture

    A posterior wall fracture accompanies a posterior dislocation, and the head lies behind the socket.

  • C. Intertrochanteric fracture

    An intertrochanteric fracture is extracapsular, and the acetabulum is intact.

  • D. Central fracture-dislocation of the hip (correct)

    Correct. The femoral head is driven medially through a broken acetabular floor.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is D, Central fracture-dislocation of the hip. A fracture of the medial wall of the acetabulum with the head driven into the pelvis is a central fracture-dislocation.

Why is "Pipkin fracture of the femoral head" not the answer?

A Pipkin fracture splits the femoral head itself, with posterior dislocation.

Why is "Posterior wall acetabular fracture" not the answer?

A posterior wall fracture accompanies a posterior dislocation, and the head lies behind the socket.

Why is "Intertrochanteric fracture" not the answer?

An intertrochanteric fracture is extracapsular, and the acetabulum is intact.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Fractures and dislocations: pelvis and hip in Orthopaedics. It is caused by a force along the femoral neck, as from a fall on the side or a blow to the greater trochanter.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Fractures and dislocations: pelvis and hip?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.