Organic mental disorders: FDG-PET in frontotemporal dementia: practice question

A Psychiatry question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Psychiatry · Organic mental disorders: FDG-PET in frontotemporal dementia

Sample item

A 62-year-old man has disinhibition, hyperorality, loss of empathy and apathy for two years, while his memory and navigation remain relatively intact. Which FDG-PET finding is expected?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Hypometabolism of frontal and anterior temporal lobes

Behavioural variant frontotemporal dementia shows frontal and anterior temporal hypometabolism and atrophy, which sets it apart from Alzheimer disease where temporoparietal and posterior cingulate regions are hit first. The behavioural picture with spared memory points to frontal involvement.

Option by option

  • A. Hypometabolism of temporoparietal cortex and posterior cingulate

    Temporoparietal and posterior cingulate hypometabolism is the typical pattern of Alzheimer disease.

  • B. Hypometabolism of frontal and anterior temporal lobes (correct)

    Correct. Frontal and anterior temporal hypometabolism fits behavioural-variant FTD.

  • C. Increased metabolism in the basal ganglia

    Increased basal ganglia metabolism is not a feature of neurodegenerative dementia.

  • D. Occipital hypometabolism

    Occipital hypometabolism is a feature of Lewy body dementia.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Psychiatry questions

Questions about this Psychiatry question

What is the answer to this Psychiatry question?

The best answer is B, Hypometabolism of frontal and anterior temporal lobes. Behavioural variant frontotemporal dementia shows frontal and anterior temporal hypometabolism and atrophy, which sets it apart from Alzheimer disease where temporoparietal and posterior cingulate regions are hit first.

Why is "Hypometabolism of temporoparietal cortex and posterior cingulate" not the answer?

Temporoparietal and posterior cingulate hypometabolism is the typical pattern of Alzheimer disease.

Why is "Increased metabolism in the basal ganglia" not the answer?

Increased basal ganglia metabolism is not a feature of neurodegenerative dementia.

Why is "Occipital hypometabolism" not the answer?

Occipital hypometabolism is a feature of Lewy body dementia.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Organic mental disorders: FDG-PET in frontotemporal dementia in Psychiatry. The behavioural picture with spared memory points to frontal involvement.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Organic mental disorders: FDG-PET in frontotemporal dementia?

Learn each diagnosis by its core features and its first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other Psychiatry questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.