Try it
OBG · Endometriosis
Sample itemA 30-year-old nulliparous woman has primary infertility, progressive severe dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia. Examination shows a fixed retroverted uterus and tender nodules in the uterosacral ligaments. Which test provides the definitive diagnosis?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
B. Laparoscopy with histology of the lesions
The history suggests endometriosis. Direct visualisation at laparoscopy with biopsy is the reference standard for diagnosis and also allows treatment. Imaging may show an endometrioma but cannot exclude peritoneal disease.
Option by option
A. Pelvic ultrasound
Ultrasound may show endometriomas but does not confirm peritoneal or deep disease.
B. Laparoscopy with histology of the lesions (correct)
Correct. Seeing and biopsying the lesions confirms the diagnosis.
C. Hysterosalpingography
Hysterosalpingography checks tubal patency but does not diagnose endometriosis.
D. Serum CA-125
CA-125 can be raised in many conditions and is neither sensitive nor specific.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
More OBG questions
- EndometriosisWhich symptom pattern is most suggestive of endometriosis?
- Antenatal careA woman's last menstrual period began on 10 January 2026. Using Naegele's rule, what is…
- Obstetric drugsCarboprost (15-methyl PGF2α) is contraindicated in which condition?
- Hypertensive disorders of pregnancyA primigravida at 34 weeks has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg on two occasions and 2+…