Gynaecological infections: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological infections

Sample item

A 22-year-old sexually active woman has lower abdominal pain, fever, purulent cervical discharge and cervical motion tenderness. What is the appropriate treatment?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics covering gonococcus, chlamydia and anaerobes

The picture is pelvic inflammatory disease, usually polymicrobial from ascending infection. Treatment is started empirically on clinical grounds, with regimens covering Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis and anaerobes. Delay raises the risk of tubal damage, infertility and ectopic pregnancy.

Option by option

  • A. Laparotomy

    Surgery is reserved for abscess that fails to respond or for rupture.

  • B. Metronidazole alone

    Metronidazole alone does not cover gonococcus or chlamydia.

  • C. Oral antifungal therapy

    An antifungal treats candidiasis and does not address this infection.

  • D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics covering gonococcus, chlamydia and anaerobes (correct)

    Correct. Empirical cover of the likely organisms prevents sequelae.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is D, Broad-spectrum antibiotics covering gonococcus, chlamydia and anaerobes. The picture is pelvic inflammatory disease, usually polymicrobial from ascending infection.

Why is "Laparotomy" not the answer?

Surgery is reserved for abscess that fails to respond or for rupture.

Why is "Metronidazole alone" not the answer?

Metronidazole alone does not cover gonococcus or chlamydia.

Why is "Oral antifungal therapy" not the answer?

An antifungal treats candidiasis and does not address this infection.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological infections in OBG. Treatment is started empirically on clinical grounds, with regimens covering Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis and anaerobes. Delay raises the risk of tubal damage, infertility and ectopic pregnancy.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological infections?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.