Hip: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Hip

Sample item

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head after an intracapsular femoral neck fracture is due to injury of which vessel?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Medial circumflex femoral artery (retinacular branches)

The femoral head gets most of its blood supply from retinacular branches of the medial circumflex femoral artery, which run along the neck. A displaced intracapsular fracture can tear them, leading to avascular necrosis. The ligamentum teres supplies only a small part.

Option by option

  • A. Profunda femoris artery

    The profunda femoris is the parent vessel of the circumflex arteries but is not the one injured directly.

  • B. Medial circumflex femoral artery (retinacular branches) (correct)

    Correct. Retinacular vessels run along the femoral neck and are easily disrupted.

  • C. Obturator artery

    The obturator artery gives a minor supply through the ligamentum teres.

  • D. Superior gluteal artery

    The superior gluteal artery supplies the gluteal muscles.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is B, Medial circumflex femoral artery (retinacular branches). The femoral head gets most of its blood supply from retinacular branches of the medial circumflex femoral artery, which run along the neck.

Why is "Profunda femoris artery" not the answer?

The profunda femoris is the parent vessel of the circumflex arteries but is not the one injured directly.

Why is "Obturator artery" not the answer?

The obturator artery gives a minor supply through the ligamentum teres.

Why is "Superior gluteal artery" not the answer?

The superior gluteal artery supplies the gluteal muscles.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Hip in Orthopaedics. A displaced intracapsular fracture can tear them, leading to avascular necrosis. The ligamentum teres supplies only a small part.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Hip?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.