Bone tumours: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Orthopaedics · Bone tumours

Sample item

A 15-year-old boy has leg pain that is worse at night and relieved promptly by aspirin. A radiograph shows a small lucent nidus in the femoral cortex surrounded by dense sclerosis. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Osteoid osteoma

Osteoid osteoma is a small benign bone-forming tumour whose nidus produces prostaglandins, causing night pain that responds dramatically to NSAIDs. Treatment is radiofrequency ablation or surgical excision of the nidus.

Option by option

  • A. Osteoid osteoma (correct)

    A small cortical nidus with sclerosis and night pain relieved by aspirin is characteristic.

  • B. Osteosarcoma

    Osteosarcoma is a large aggressive tumour with sunburst reaction and not a tiny nidus.

  • C. Ewing sarcoma

    Ewing sarcoma is a large destructive tumour with onion-peel periosteal reaction and systemic features.

  • D. Brodie's abscess

    A Brodie's abscess is a metaphyseal lucent cavity with a sclerotic rim and does not show a prompt response to aspirin.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is A, Osteoid osteoma. Osteoid osteoma is a small benign bone-forming tumour whose nidus produces prostaglandins, causing night pain that responds dramatically to NSAIDs.

Why is "Osteosarcoma" not the answer?

Osteosarcoma is a large aggressive tumour with sunburst reaction and not a tiny nidus.

Why is "Ewing sarcoma" not the answer?

Ewing sarcoma is a large destructive tumour with onion-peel periosteal reaction and systemic features.

Why is "Brodie's abscess" not the answer?

A Brodie's abscess is a metaphyseal lucent cavity with a sclerotic rim and does not show a prompt response to aspirin.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Bone tumours in Orthopaedics. Treatment is radiofrequency ablation or surgical excision of the nidus.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Bone tumours?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.