Neuroanatomy: practice question

A Anatomy question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Anatomy · Neuroanatomy

Sample item

Occlusion of which artery most typically causes lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

Lateral medullary syndrome follows occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (or the vertebral artery). It gives ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the body, Horner syndrome, dysphagia, hoarseness and cerebellar signs.

Option by option

  • A. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (correct)

    Correct. PICA supplies the lateral medulla, giving the classic crossed sensory loss and bulbar signs.

  • B. Posterior cerebral artery

    The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe and thalamus, so it causes visual field defects.

  • C. Anterior spinal artery

    The anterior spinal artery supplies the medial medulla, causing medial medullary syndrome with tongue weakness.

  • D. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

    AICA supplies the lateral pons, so occlusion causes a lateral pontine pattern with facial weakness and deafness.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Anatomy questions

Questions about this Anatomy question

What is the answer to this Anatomy question?

The best answer is A, Posterior inferior cerebellar artery. Lateral medullary syndrome follows occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (or the vertebral artery).

Why is "Posterior cerebral artery" not the answer?

The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe and thalamus, so it causes visual field defects.

Why is "Anterior spinal artery" not the answer?

The anterior spinal artery supplies the medial medulla, causing medial medullary syndrome with tongue weakness.

Why is "Anterior inferior cerebellar artery" not the answer?

AICA supplies the lateral pons, so occlusion causes a lateral pontine pattern with facial weakness and deafness.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neuroanatomy in Anatomy. It gives ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the body, Horner syndrome, dysphagia, hoarseness and cerebellar signs.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neuroanatomy?

Learn every nerve by its route, its muscles and what a lesion looks like at the bedside. That one habit answers a large share of questions. Then use the flashcards and the other Anatomy questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.