Nephrology: autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease: practice question

A General Medicine question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Medicine · Nephrology: autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

Sample item

A 40-year-old has hypertension, bilateral enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts, and a sudden severe headache with neck stiffness. Which is the likeliest cause of the headache?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Ruptured berry aneurysm

ADPKD, most often due to PKD1 mutation, is associated with intracranial berry aneurysms, liver cysts and mitral valve prolapse. A thunderclap headache with meningism suggests subarachnoid haemorrhage. Tolvaptan slows cyst growth in selected patients.

Option by option

  • A. Ruptured berry aneurysm (correct)

    Correct. ADPKD carries a risk of berry aneurysm rupture.

  • B. Migraine

    Migraine does not explain meningism with this association.

  • C. Hypertensive encephalopathy only

    Hypertensive encephalopathy does not typically give sudden neck stiffness.

  • D. Meningioma

    Meningioma presents more insidiously.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Medicine questions

Questions about this General Medicine question

What is the answer to this General Medicine question?

The best answer is A, Ruptured berry aneurysm. ADPKD, most often due to PKD1 mutation, is associated with intracranial berry aneurysms, liver cysts and mitral valve prolapse.

Why is "Migraine" not the answer?

Migraine does not explain meningism with this association.

Why is "Hypertensive encephalopathy only" not the answer?

Hypertensive encephalopathy does not typically give sudden neck stiffness.

Why is "Meningioma" not the answer?

Meningioma presents more insidiously.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Nephrology: autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease in General Medicine. A thunderclap headache with meningism suggests subarachnoid haemorrhage. Tolvaptan slows cyst growth in selected patients.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Nephrology: autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?

For each disease know the classic presentation, the best test, and the first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other General Medicine questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.