Urology: testicular torsion: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Urology: testicular torsion

Sample item

A 14-year-old boy has sudden severe scrotal pain with vomiting for 3 hours. The testis is high-riding with a transverse lie, and the cremasteric reflex is absent. What is the next step?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Immediate surgical exploration with detorsion and bilateral orchidopexy

Torsion is a surgical emergency, with testicular salvage best within 6 hours. Clinical suspicion alone justifies exploration without delaying for imaging. The bell-clapper deformity is bilateral, so the contralateral testis is fixed as well.

Option by option

  • A. Oral antibiotics

    Antibiotics suit epididymitis, which has a positive Prehn sign.

  • B. Immediate surgical exploration with detorsion and bilateral orchidopexy (correct)

    Correct. Urgent exploration and bilateral fixation are required.

  • C. Scrotal elevation and analgesia

    Analgesia alone leads to infarction.

  • D. Doppler ultrasound and wait for the result before deciding

    Imaging delays surgery when suspicion is high.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Surgery questions

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is B, Immediate surgical exploration with detorsion and bilateral orchidopexy. Torsion is a surgical emergency, with testicular salvage best within 6 hours.

Why is "Oral antibiotics" not the answer?

Antibiotics suit epididymitis, which has a positive Prehn sign.

Why is "Scrotal elevation and analgesia" not the answer?

Analgesia alone leads to infarction.

Why is "Doppler ultrasound and wait for the result before deciding" not the answer?

Imaging delays surgery when suspicion is high.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Urology: testicular torsion in General Surgery. Clinical suspicion alone justifies exploration without delaying for imaging. The bell-clapper deformity is bilateral, so the contralateral testis is fixed as well.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Urology: testicular torsion?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.