Neutrophilic dermatoses: Sweet syndrome: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Dermatology · Neutrophilic dermatoses: Sweet syndrome

Sample item

A 55-year-old woman has fever, neutrophilia and tender, juicy erythematous plaques on the arms for 5 days. Biopsy shows a dense dermal neutrophilic infiltrate without vasculitis. Which drug is first-line?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Oral prednisolone

Sweet syndrome is an acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis with tender plaques and a dermal neutrophil infiltrate. It is associated with infection, inflammatory bowel disease, malignancy such as AML and drugs including G-CSF. Systemic corticosteroids are first-line, and a malignancy screen is advised.

Option by option

  • A. Oral prednisolone (correct)

    Correct. Oral steroids are first-line for Sweet syndrome.

  • B. Acyclovir

    Acyclovir is not indicated.

  • C. Oral penicillin

    Antibiotics do not treat the sterile inflammation.

  • D. Isotretinoin

    Isotretinoin has no role.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is A, Oral prednisolone. Sweet syndrome is an acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis with tender plaques and a dermal neutrophil infiltrate.

Why is "Acyclovir" not the answer?

Acyclovir is not indicated.

Why is "Oral penicillin" not the answer?

Antibiotics do not treat the sterile inflammation.

Why is "Isotretinoin" not the answer?

Isotretinoin has no role.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neutrophilic dermatoses: Sweet syndrome in Dermatology. It is associated with infection, inflammatory bowel disease, malignancy such as AML and drugs including G-CSF. Systemic corticosteroids are first-line, and a malignancy screen is advised.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neutrophilic dermatoses: Sweet syndrome?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.