Fractures in children: triplane fracture: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Fractures in children: triplane fracture

Sample item

A 14-year-old girl twists her ankle in netball. Radiographs show a physeal fracture of the distal tibia with a vertical epiphyseal split and a posterior metaphyseal fragment. Which fracture is this, and which scan helps planning?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Triplane fracture; CT scan

A triplane fracture occurs near the end of distal tibial physeal closure and has fracture planes in the sagittal, coronal and transverse directions. It is intra-articular, so CT is used to measure displacement and plan fixation. More than 2 mm of articular step is usually treated with operative reduction.

Option by option

  • A. Weber A fracture; DEXA scan

    A Weber A fracture is a fibular fracture below the syndesmosis.

  • B. Tillaux fracture; ultrasound

    A Tillaux fracture is an avulsion of the anterolateral tibial epiphysis and has no metaphyseal fragment.

  • C. Triplane fracture; CT scan (correct)

    Correct. Three planes of fracture at the closing physis define a triplane fracture, and CT guides surgery.

  • D. Pilon fracture; bone scan

    A pilon fracture is a comminuted fracture of the tibial plafond from axial load in adults.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is C, Triplane fracture; CT scan. A triplane fracture occurs near the end of distal tibial physeal closure and has fracture planes in the sagittal, coronal and transverse directions.

Why is "Weber A fracture; DEXA scan" not the answer?

A Weber A fracture is a fibular fracture below the syndesmosis.

Why is "Tillaux fracture; ultrasound" not the answer?

A Tillaux fracture is an avulsion of the anterolateral tibial epiphysis and has no metaphyseal fragment.

Why is "Pilon fracture; bone scan" not the answer?

A pilon fracture is a comminuted fracture of the tibial plafond from axial load in adults.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Fractures in children: triplane fracture in Orthopaedics. It is intra-articular, so CT is used to measure displacement and plan fixation. More than 2 mm of articular step is usually treated with operative reduction.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Fractures in children: triplane fracture?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.