Hip: greater trochanteric pain syndrome: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Hip: greater trochanteric pain syndrome

Sample item

A 55-year-old woman has lateral hip pain on lying on the affected side and climbing stairs, with sharp tenderness over the greater trochanter. The hip joint moves painlessly and radiographs are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome (trochanteric bursitis and gluteal tendinopathy)

Greater trochanteric pain syndrome is lateral hip pain from gluteus medius and minimus tendinopathy with trochanteric bursitis. Pain is reproduced by direct palpation and side lying, and hip rotation is painless. Management is activity modification, physiotherapy and a local steroid injection when needed.

Option by option

  • A. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

    SCFE occurs in obese adolescents and not in middle-aged women.

  • B. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

    Avascular necrosis causes groin pain with restricted movement and abnormal imaging.

  • C. Osteoarthritis of the hip

    Hip osteoarthritis causes groin pain with limited, painful internal rotation.

  • D. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome (trochanteric bursitis and gluteal tendinopathy) (correct)

    Correct. Localised trochanteric tenderness with a painless hip joint fits this syndrome.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is D, Greater trochanteric pain syndrome (trochanteric bursitis and gluteal tendinopathy). Greater trochanteric pain syndrome is lateral hip pain from gluteus medius and minimus tendinopathy with trochanteric bursitis.

Why is "Slipped capital femoral epiphysis" not the answer?

SCFE occurs in obese adolescents and not in middle-aged women.

Why is "Avascular necrosis of the femoral head" not the answer?

Avascular necrosis causes groin pain with restricted movement and abnormal imaging.

Why is "Osteoarthritis of the hip" not the answer?

Hip osteoarthritis causes groin pain with limited, painful internal rotation.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Hip: greater trochanteric pain syndrome in Orthopaedics. Pain is reproduced by direct palpation and side lying, and hip rotation is painless. Management is activity modification, physiotherapy and a local steroid injection when needed.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Hip: greater trochanteric pain syndrome?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.