Gynaecological pathology: mucinous tumours and pseudomyxoma: practice question

A Pathology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pathology · Gynaecological pathology: mucinous tumours and pseudomyxoma

Sample item

A 48-year-old woman has a large multiloculated ovarian mass, and at laparotomy the peritoneal cavity contains abundant gelatinous mucin. What should be examined to find the likely source of the mucin?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. The appendix, for a mucinous neoplasm

Pseudomyxoma peritonei is the diffuse accumulation of mucin on peritoneal surfaces, and most cases arise from a low-grade mucinous neoplasm of the appendix with KRAS mutation. Ovarian involvement is often secondary, so the appendix should be examined and usually removed. Cytoreductive surgery with intraperitoneal chemotherapy treats the disease.

Option by option

  • A. The endometrium, for endometrioid carcinoma

    Endometrioid carcinoma does not produce gelatinous peritoneal mucin.

  • B. The appendix, for a mucinous neoplasm (correct)

    Correct. Appendiceal mucinous neoplasms are the usual primary source.

  • C. The fallopian tube, for serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma

    Serous tubal carcinoma does not produce abundant mucin.

  • D. The cervix, for adenoma malignum only

    Adenoma malignum of the cervix is rare and is not the typical source.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Pathology questions

Questions about this Pathology question

What is the answer to this Pathology question?

The best answer is B, The appendix, for a mucinous neoplasm. Pseudomyxoma peritonei is the diffuse accumulation of mucin on peritoneal surfaces, and most cases arise from a low-grade mucinous neoplasm of the appendix with KRAS mutation.

Why is "The endometrium, for endometrioid carcinoma" not the answer?

Endometrioid carcinoma does not produce gelatinous peritoneal mucin.

Why is "The fallopian tube, for serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma" not the answer?

Serous tubal carcinoma does not produce abundant mucin.

Why is "The cervix, for adenoma malignum only" not the answer?

Adenoma malignum of the cervix is rare and is not the typical source.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological pathology: mucinous tumours and pseudomyxoma in Pathology. Ovarian involvement is often secondary, so the appendix should be examined and usually removed. Cytoreductive surgery with intraperitoneal chemotherapy treats the disease.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological pathology: mucinous tumours and pseudomyxoma?

Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Then use the flashcards and the other Pathology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.