Cardiovascular: aneurysms: practice question

A Pathology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Pathology · Cardiovascular: aneurysms

Sample item

A 70-year-old smoker and a 30-year-old man with Marfan syndrome are both found to have aortic aneurysms. Which statement correctly pairs each patient with the underlying pathology?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Smoker: atherosclerosis of the abdominal aorta; Marfan: cystic medial degeneration of the thoracic aorta

Abdominal aortic aneurysm mostly results from atherosclerotic damage to the media in older smokers. Thoracic aneurysm in Marfan syndrome results from cystic medial degeneration due to defective fibrillin-1 and excess TGF-beta signalling. Syphilis affects the ascending aorta through endarteritis of the vasa vasorum.

Option by option

  • A. Smoker: atherosclerosis of the abdominal aorta; Marfan: cystic medial degeneration of the thoracic aorta (correct)

    Correct. Abdominal aneurysms are atherosclerotic and Marfan aneurysms show cystic medial degeneration.

  • B. Smoker: syphilitic aortitis; Marfan: atherosclerosis

    Syphilitic aortitis is an uncommon cause of thoracic aneurysm and not the usual cause in this smoker.

  • C. Both: Takayasu arteritis

    Takayasu arteritis affects young women and does not explain both cases.

  • D. Smoker: cystic medial degeneration; Marfan: atherosclerosis

    The causes are swapped: cystic medial degeneration belongs to the Marfan patient and atherosclerosis to the smoker.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Pathology questions

Questions about this Pathology question

What is the answer to this Pathology question?

The best answer is A, Smoker: atherosclerosis of the abdominal aorta; Marfan: cystic medial degeneration of the thoracic aorta. Abdominal aortic aneurysm mostly results from atherosclerotic damage to the media in older smokers.

Why is "Smoker: syphilitic aortitis; Marfan: atherosclerosis" not the answer?

Syphilitic aortitis is an uncommon cause of thoracic aneurysm and not the usual cause in this smoker.

Why is "Both: Takayasu arteritis" not the answer?

Takayasu arteritis affects young women and does not explain both cases.

Why is "Smoker: cystic medial degeneration; Marfan: atherosclerosis" not the answer?

The causes are swapped: cystic medial degeneration belongs to the Marfan patient and atherosclerosis to the smoker.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Cardiovascular: aneurysms in Pathology. Thoracic aneurysm in Marfan syndrome results from cystic medial degeneration due to defective fibrillin-1 and excess TGF-beta signalling. Syphilis affects the ascending aorta through endarteritis of the vasa vasorum.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Cardiovascular: aneurysms?

Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Then use the flashcards and the other Pathology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.