Gastrointestinal: chronic gastritis: practice question

A Pathology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pathology · Gastrointestinal: chronic gastritis

Sample item

A 58-year-old woman has fatigue and glossitis with macrocytic anaemia. Endoscopy shows atrophic gastric body mucosa with a normal antrum. Serum gastrin is markedly raised and the stomach pH is high. Which diagnosis fits best?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Autoimmune (type A) gastritis

Autoimmune gastritis destroys parietal cells in the body and fundus, causing achlorhydria, hypergastrinaemia from loss of acid inhibition, and B12 deficiency from lack of intrinsic factor. H. pylori gastritis typically involves the antrum first. Anti-parietal cell and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies are present.

Option by option

  • A. Helicobacter pylori antral gastritis

    H. pylori gastritis begins in the antrum and does not usually spare it.

  • B. NSAID-induced erosive gastritis

    NSAIDs cause erosions and ulcers rather than diffuse body atrophy and B12 deficiency.

  • C. Autoimmune (type A) gastritis (correct)

    Correct. Body-predominant atrophy with achlorhydria, high gastrin and B12 deficiency indicates type A gastritis.

  • D. Menetrier disease

    Menetrier disease has giant rugal folds with protein loss, not atrophy.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Pathology questions

Questions about this Pathology question

What is the answer to this Pathology question?

The best answer is C, Autoimmune (type A) gastritis. Autoimmune gastritis destroys parietal cells in the body and fundus, causing achlorhydria, hypergastrinaemia from loss of acid inhibition, and B12 deficiency from lack of intrinsic factor.

Why is "Helicobacter pylori antral gastritis" not the answer?

H. pylori gastritis begins in the antrum and does not usually spare it.

Why is "NSAID-induced erosive gastritis" not the answer?

NSAIDs cause erosions and ulcers rather than diffuse body atrophy and B12 deficiency.

Why is "Menetrier disease" not the answer?

Menetrier disease has giant rugal folds with protein loss, not atrophy.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gastrointestinal: chronic gastritis in Pathology. H. pylori gastritis typically involves the antrum first. Anti-parietal cell and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies are present.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gastrointestinal: chronic gastritis?

Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Then use the flashcards and the other Pathology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.