Abdominal imaging: epiploic appendagitis: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · Abdominal imaging: epiploic appendagitis

Sample item

A fit man has acute focal left lower quadrant pain without fever or raised inflammatory markers. CT shows a small oval fat-density lesion with a hyperattenuating rim adjacent to the sigmoid colon and a central dot. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Epiploic appendagitis

Torsion or venous thrombosis of an epiploic appendage produces an ovoid fatty lesion with surrounding inflammation and a central dot representing the thrombosed vessel. It is a self-limiting condition managed with analgesia, not surgery.

Option by option

  • A. Appendicitis

    Appendicitis occurs on the right with an inflamed appendix.

  • B. Omental infarct of the right side

    An omental infarct is usually larger and on the right side.

  • C. Epiploic appendagitis (correct)

    Correct. A fatty ovoid lesion with a hyperdense ring and a central dot is typical.

  • D. Acute diverticulitis

    Diverticulitis shows bowel wall thickening with diverticula and fever.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Radiology questions

Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is C, Epiploic appendagitis. Torsion or venous thrombosis of an epiploic appendage produces an ovoid fatty lesion with surrounding inflammation and a central dot representing the thrombosed vessel.

Why is "Appendicitis" not the answer?

Appendicitis occurs on the right with an inflamed appendix.

Why is "Omental infarct of the right side" not the answer?

An omental infarct is usually larger and on the right side.

Why is "Acute diverticulitis" not the answer?

Diverticulitis shows bowel wall thickening with diverticula and fever.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Abdominal imaging: epiploic appendagitis in Radiology. It is a self-limiting condition managed with analgesia, not surgery.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Abdominal imaging: epiploic appendagitis?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.