Interventional radiology: pseudoaneurysm after femoral puncture: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · Interventional radiology: pseudoaneurysm after femoral puncture

Sample item

Two days after cardiac catheterisation, a patient has a pulsatile groin mass. Duplex ultrasound shows a swirling flow within a sac connected to the femoral artery by a neck, with a to-and-fro waveform. What is the diagnosis and a minimally invasive treatment?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Femoral pseudoaneurysm, treated with ultrasound-guided thrombin injection

A pseudoaneurysm is a contained arterial leak after puncture, and Doppler shows a yin-yang flow pattern and a to-and-fro waveform in the neck. Ultrasound-guided thrombin injection or compression can thrombose it, with surgery for failures.

Option by option

  • A. Femoral pseudoaneurysm, treated with ultrasound-guided thrombin injection (correct)

    Correct. Swirling flow with a to-and-fro neck waveform is a pseudoaneurysm.

  • B. Deep venous thrombosis, treated by an IVC filter

    DVT shows a non-compressible vein, not a sac attached to the artery.

  • C. Femoral hernia, treated with compression

    A hernia shows bowel or fat with no arterial flow.

  • D. Lymphocele, treated by aspiration

    A lymphocele is an avascular fluid collection.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is A, Femoral pseudoaneurysm, treated with ultrasound-guided thrombin injection. A pseudoaneurysm is a contained arterial leak after puncture, and Doppler shows a yin-yang flow pattern and a to-and-fro waveform in the neck.

Why is "Deep venous thrombosis, treated by an IVC filter" not the answer?

DVT shows a non-compressible vein, not a sac attached to the artery.

Why is "Femoral hernia, treated with compression" not the answer?

A hernia shows bowel or fat with no arterial flow.

Why is "Lymphocele, treated by aspiration" not the answer?

A lymphocele is an avascular fluid collection.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Interventional radiology: pseudoaneurysm after femoral puncture in Radiology. Ultrasound-guided thrombin injection or compression can thrombose it, with surgery for failures.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Interventional radiology: pseudoaneurysm after femoral puncture?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.