Neuroimaging: cerebral amyloid angiopathy: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Radiology · Neuroimaging: cerebral amyloid angiopathy

Sample item

A 75-year-old woman with dementia has recurrent lobar haemorrhages. Susceptibility-weighted MRI shows multiple small cortical and subcortical foci of signal loss, sparing the basal ganglia and brainstem. What is the likely cause?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

Amyloid deposition in cortical and leptomeningeal vessels causes lobar haemorrhages and peripheral microbleeds in older adults. Hypertensive microbleeds favour deep structures such as the basal ganglia, thalami and pons. Diffuse axonal injury follows trauma.

Option by option

  • A. Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (correct)

    Correct. Lobar and cortical-subcortical microbleeds suggest amyloid angiopathy.

  • B. Hypertensive small vessel disease

    Hypertensive bleeds favour deep structures, which are spared here.

  • C. Cavernous malformations

    Cavernous malformations are discrete popcorn lesions with a haemosiderin rim.

  • D. Diffuse axonal injury

    There is no trauma history to suggest axonal injury.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Radiology questions

Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is A, Cerebral amyloid angiopathy. Amyloid deposition in cortical and leptomeningeal vessels causes lobar haemorrhages and peripheral microbleeds in older adults.

Why is "Hypertensive small vessel disease" not the answer?

Hypertensive bleeds favour deep structures, which are spared here.

Why is "Cavernous malformations" not the answer?

Cavernous malformations are discrete popcorn lesions with a haemosiderin rim.

Why is "Diffuse axonal injury" not the answer?

There is no trauma history to suggest axonal injury.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neuroimaging: cerebral amyloid angiopathy in Radiology. Hypertensive microbleeds favour deep structures such as the basal ganglia, thalami and pons. Diffuse axonal injury follows trauma.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neuroimaging: cerebral amyloid angiopathy?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.