Cardiology: practice question

A General Medicine question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

General Medicine · Cardiology

Sample item

A 30-year-old man has sharp pleuritic central chest pain that eases on sitting forward, two weeks after a viral illness. ECG shows widespread concave ST elevation with PR depression. What is the best treatment?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. High-dose NSAID or aspirin with colchicine

Acute pericarditis is diagnosed by pleuritic pain, a friction rub, diffuse ST elevation with PR depression and a pericardial effusion. First-line therapy is an NSAID or aspirin plus colchicine, which lowers recurrence. Anticoagulants and thrombolytics increase the risk of haemopericardium.

Option by option

  • A. Intravenous heparin infusion

    Heparin does not treat pericarditis and may cause bleeding into the pericardium.

  • B. High-dose NSAID or aspirin with colchicine (correct)

    Correct. NSAIDs with colchicine are first-line for acute pericarditis.

  • C. Thrombolysis with alteplase

    Thrombolysis is for ST elevation myocardial infarction and risks haemopericardium here.

  • D. Primary angioplasty

    Primary angioplasty is not indicated since the ST elevation is diffuse and non-coronary.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Medicine questions

Questions about this General Medicine question

What is the answer to this General Medicine question?

The best answer is B, High-dose NSAID or aspirin with colchicine. Acute pericarditis is diagnosed by pleuritic pain, a friction rub, diffuse ST elevation with PR depression and a pericardial effusion.

Why is "Intravenous heparin infusion" not the answer?

Heparin does not treat pericarditis and may cause bleeding into the pericardium.

Why is "Thrombolysis with alteplase" not the answer?

Thrombolysis is for ST elevation myocardial infarction and risks haemopericardium here.

Why is "Primary angioplasty" not the answer?

Primary angioplasty is not indicated since the ST elevation is diffuse and non-coronary.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Cardiology in General Medicine. First-line therapy is an NSAID or aspirin plus colchicine, which lowers recurrence. Anticoagulants and thrombolytics increase the risk of haemopericardium.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Cardiology?

For each disease know the classic presentation, the best test, and the first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other General Medicine questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.