Cardiology: practice question

A General Medicine question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Medicine · Cardiology

Sample item

A patient with chest pain has ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which artery is most likely occluded?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Right coronary artery

ST elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) indicates an inferior myocardial infarction, most often from right coronary artery occlusion in right-dominant hearts. Look for right ventricular involvement with right-sided leads, and avoid nitrates if the right ventricle is involved.

Option by option

  • A. Left main coronary artery

    Left main occlusion usually causes widespread changes and cardiogenic shock.

  • B. Left circumflex artery

    The circumflex causes inferior or lateral changes in a minority, but the RCA is the most likely culprit.

  • C. Right coronary artery (correct)

    Correct. The RCA supplies the inferior wall in most people.

  • D. Left anterior descending artery

    LAD occlusion causes ST elevation in the anterior leads V1 to V4.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Medicine questions

Questions about this General Medicine question

What is the answer to this General Medicine question?

The best answer is C, Right coronary artery. ST elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) indicates an inferior myocardial infarction, most often from right coronary artery occlusion in right-dominant hearts.

Why is "Left main coronary artery" not the answer?

Left main occlusion usually causes widespread changes and cardiogenic shock.

Why is "Left circumflex artery" not the answer?

The circumflex causes inferior or lateral changes in a minority, but the RCA is the most likely culprit.

Why is "Left anterior descending artery" not the answer?

LAD occlusion causes ST elevation in the anterior leads V1 to V4.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Cardiology in General Medicine. Look for right ventricular involvement with right-sided leads, and avoid nitrates if the right ventricle is involved.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Cardiology?

For each disease know the classic presentation, the best test, and the first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other General Medicine questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.