Trauma imaging: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Radiology · Trauma imaging

Sample item

A man is hit by a heavy object on the head. An open-mouth view of the cervical spine shows combined lateral mass overhang of C1 on C2 totalling more than 7 mm. Which injury is this?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Jefferson burst fracture of the atlas

A Jefferson fracture is a burst fracture of the C1 ring caused by axial loading, with fractures of the anterior and posterior arches. On the open-mouth view the lateral masses of C1 overhang those of C2, and a combined overhang beyond about 7 mm implies transverse ligament rupture and instability.

Option by option

  • A. Hangman fracture of C2

    A Hangman fracture is a bilateral pars interarticularis fracture of C2 from hyperextension.

  • B. Clay-shoveler fracture

    A clay-shoveler fracture is an avulsion of the spinous process of C6 or C7.

  • C. Jefferson burst fracture of the atlas (correct)

    Correct. Axial load produces a C1 ring burst with lateral mass spread.

  • D. Odontoid type II fracture

    An odontoid fracture involves the dens and shows a lucent line at its base.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Radiology questions

Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is C, Jefferson burst fracture of the atlas. A Jefferson fracture is a burst fracture of the C1 ring caused by axial loading, with fractures of the anterior and posterior arches.

Why is "Hangman fracture of C2" not the answer?

A Hangman fracture is a bilateral pars interarticularis fracture of C2 from hyperextension.

Why is "Clay-shoveler fracture" not the answer?

A clay-shoveler fracture is an avulsion of the spinous process of C6 or C7.

Why is "Odontoid type II fracture" not the answer?

An odontoid fracture involves the dens and shows a lucent line at its base.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Trauma imaging in Radiology. On the open-mouth view the lateral masses of C1 overhang those of C2, and a combined overhang beyond about 7 mm implies transverse ligament rupture and instability.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Trauma imaging?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.