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General Medicine · Neurology: tuberculous meningitis
Sample itemA 22-year-old man from a crowded urban slum has 3 weeks of headache and low-grade fever, then drowsiness and a right sixth nerve palsy. CSF is clear with a cobweb clot, 180 cells per mm3 (85% lymphocytes), protein 220 mg/dL and glucose 24 mg/dL (blood glucose 96 mg/dL). MRI shows basal meningeal enhancement and hydrocephalus. What is the most appropriate management?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
C. Start four-drug antituberculous therapy with corticosteroids without waiting for culture
A subacute meningitis with lymphocytic CSF, high protein, low glucose, cobweb clot and basal exudates with hydrocephalus is tuberculous meningitis. Delay worsens outcome, so treatment begins on suspicion; the Indian programme uses isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol for 2 months followed by isoniazid, rifampicin and ethambutol to complete 12 months. Adjunct corticosteroids reduce mortality, and hydrocephalus may need a shunt.
Option by option
A. Start intravenous acyclovir
Acyclovir treats herpes encephalitis, which presents acutely with temporal lobe signs and normal CSF glucose.
B. Start fluconazole
Fluconazole treats cryptococcal meningitis, which is considered in HIV infection and is not supported by the CSF here.
C. Start four-drug antituberculous therapy with corticosteroids without waiting for culture (correct)
Correct. Prompt empirical therapy with steroids is required, and cultures are slow.
D. Wait for CSF culture before starting treatment
Culture takes weeks and delay causes irreversible neurological damage.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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